archives

p>I noticed a query here on the Johanine Comma which I find it difficult not to satisfy. I have written an article about it showing the Comma was a marginal note that made its way into the main text of the epistle largely through the work of copysts. And it found its way into the text because of a deeply entrenched conviction about the Trinity, not the other way around.

Could there have been a motive for introducing the gloss into the main text of 1 Jn. 5:7 that would make it a conscious effort to pervert the Christian faith? Was there anything in the year 800 or thereabouts that made the Catholic Church want to "change" the belief in God? I don't think there is any except the desire of the so-called "non-Trinitarians" to blame the Catholic Church for their not being a part of it. The fact is, all so-called "Christian Churches" who are Non-Trinitarian were founded AFTER the Protestant churches have emerged. This can only mean one thing: the "non-Trinitarian" belief is but an attempt to "correct" a supposed impurity in Christian doctrine introduced by the Catholic Church. In other words, the "non-Trinitarian" belief is a modern teaching that arises from the need to make one's beliefs look original in the face of opposition and antagonism to Catholic belief.